How should the cost disclosure be made regarding the respective figures that are to be disclosed in aggregated and itemized form (see Question 13/[Q&A 1825]) in case the respective costs or charges are zero?

Which specific limitations to the cost transparency regime may professional clients and eligible counterparties agree on?

How should an investment firm assess, in accordance with Article 50(1) paragraph 3 of the MiFID II Delegated Regulation, that an eligible counterparty does not intend to offer the financial instruments to its clients?

How should investment firms identify and disclose mark-ups and structuring costs embedded in the transaction price (Recital 79 of the MiFID II Delegated Regulation)?

How is Recital 79 of the MiFID II Delegated Regulation “The costs and charges disclosure is underpinned by the principle that every difference between the price of a position for the firm and the respective price for the client should be disclosed, including mark-ups and mark-downs.” to be interpreted with regard to the position for the firm?