1a. Can mortgages that are secured by non-owner occupied residential real estate and mortgages that are secured by mixed-use real estate properties considered to be both residential mortgages and thus can a combination of these two types considered to be homogeneous in accordance with article 1(a)(i) of the RTS on homogeneity?

1b. Could alternatively buy-to-let mortgages, in this case consisting of both mortgages that are secured by non-owner occupied residential and mortgages that are secured by mixed-use real estate properties, be considered as an asset type within the meaning of article 1(a)(viii) of the RTS on homogeneity?